Students who are seeking to admission into the engineering and architectural courses(B.E/B.tech and B.arch/B.Plan) which is offered by the IITs (Indian Institution of Technology) need to appear in the JEE Advanced 2019. A students will eligible, if they clear JEE Main and be in top 2,24,000. In this article you will get (last 10 year) JEE Advanced Previous Year Question Papers.
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JEE Main 2019 has started and the January exam for Paper 2 has been conducted successfully. JEE Main is being conducted in the winter session for the first time. Paper 2 is meant for architecture aspirants, and clearing this exam ensures admission to top colleges for a 5-year undergraduate degree. Competition for the exam is high, hence you must know JEE Main paper 2 important topics to prepare well.
As you prepare for the exam, it is essential that you complete the syllabus atleast 2 months before the examination. Another session of JEE Main will be conducted in April, 2019. So, you must utilize this time well in revising for the exam. With just 3 months left for the next session, it is indispensable that you must practice previous year papers because it gives you an idea of JEE Main exam pattern.
JEE Main 2019 is scheduled between January 8 and 16, 2019. As per the paper analysis, aspirants are finding Physics as a difficult section because of tricky calculations. You must focus on the concepts right from class 11th to score well. Of the various subjects, Physics is considered the toughest by a majority of aspirants. So, through this article, you will get physics previous year questions.
JEE Main Paper 1 Analysis is now available. Check here
Each derivation in Physics is time-consuming and complicated. You need constant practice and revision to memorize the section well. With ample practice and toppers’ guidelines, you can master the derivations. Here are some important Physics derivations which will help you in class 12th as well as JEE Main.
JEE Main 2019 entrance examination would be conducted by NTA for those candidates who want to get admission in engineering courses. So, before registering to the examination, students are advisable to check its difficulty level. Because knowing difficulty level help students to identify what type of questions asked in the paper, marks distribution, and questions which are asked frequently in the paper etc.
JEE Main examination is comprised of 140 questions which will be asked from the subjects namely Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Difficulty levels of all the subjects are different. In general, if talking about the subject-wise analysis of exam difficulty level, Physics and Chemistry sections are found to be easy and Mathematics section found tricky one.
Following are the some points that students need to take care before appearing for the exam:
- There were also problem solving questions in the paper which made it lengthy and time consuming.
- Questions in the JEE Main exam were asked from the XII syllabus. So, candidates should focus mostly on the class XII syllabus
- Questions must solve very carefully, because for every wrong answer marks will be deducted.
So, in this article, following is the detailed explanation of JEE Main difficulty level of previous years with the help of which applicants can easily analyze expected difficulty level of JEE Main 2019.
JEE Main 2019 Difficulty Level
- Physics: Tough
- Chemistry: Moderate
- Mathematics: Lengthy
Click Here to check Complete Paper Analysis.
JEE Main – Previous Years (2015-2018) Difficulty comparison table
For identifying the Expected JEE Main 2019 difficulty level, students have to go through the previous year difficulty levels of JEE Main from the year 2015-2018. The difficulty level is categorized into three categories i.e. Easy, Moderate and Difficult.
The subject-wise comparison of difficulty level of previous year JEE Main is as follows:
So, after analyzing previous year difficult levels from the above table, students can get an idea related to the expected difficulty level of JEE Main 2019. Physics difficulty level of JEE Main 2019 will be moderate to difficult, Chemistry difficulty level will be difficult and Mathematics will be of moderate difficulty level.
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JEE Main – Subject wise difficulty level according to each year (2015-2018)
Following is the detailed explanation of each year subject-wise difficulty level:
In the year 2015, the section was simply easy. Questions were asked of different difficulty level. 13 questions were easy, 10 were of moderate difficulty level and rest of the 7 were quite difficult.
In the year 2016, this was the toughest section amongst the three sections. Mostly questions were numerical based and time consuming. So, as a result students cannot complete this section on time
In the year 2017, this section was the simplest one. There were 17 questions asked from the class XII syllabus and 14 from class XI syllabus.
In the year 2018, some of the question from important topics likes Mechanical waves and sound and uniform circular motion were completely missing. The paper was simpler than last year.
|Section||Difficulty Level||Questions Difficulty Level (Each Year)|
In the year 2015, Chemistry section is comprised of a total number of 30 questions. 15 questions were easy, 9 were of moderate difficulty level and rest of the 6 questions was difficult.
In the year 2016, Chemistry was easy section to solve. All the questions were fact-based. It’s not very time consuming section and students can score good marks.
In the year 2017, this section was relatively tougher than the last year. Questions from the organic chemistry were lesser than expected.
In the year 2018, this was the simplest section among all the three sections. The questions in the paper asked from all the topics mentioned in the syllabus. As compare to the last year, the paper was more conceptual.
|Section||Difficulty Level||Questions Difficulty Level (Each Year)|
In the year 2015, this section was moderate to easy difficulty level. 5 questions were of highest difficulty level.
In the year 2016, the Mathematics section has a good mix of questions. So, it was not a tough or difficult section to solve.
In the year 2017, this section was simpler than the last year. It is comprised of some lengthy questions and single concept questions.
In the year 2018, Mathematics section was having mostly lengthy questions. So, chances of making mistake increases. 7 questions were of high difficulty level.
|Section||Difficulty Level||Questions Difficulty Level (Each Year)|
In this article you will get all the question which are asked in Previous Year Questions. Solving Previous year question papers will give you the idea about the difficulty level of the Exam, Exam Pattern and Important Question. It is advised to each and every students that please solve at least last five year question. Probably 20-30 questions are directly asked from the these question papers. It will give you an advantage while attempting the question papers.
Previous year questions which were asked into the JEE Main (Chemistry)
Here you will find all the question which were asked into the previous year JEE Main Question Papers. A candidates who are preparing for JEE Main 2019 can take help from these questions because every year 20% question are directly taken from the previous year question papers.
1. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals equation at low pressure can be written as :
- Z=1— Pb RT
- Z=1+ Pb RT
- Z=1+ RT Pb
- Z=1— a VRT
2. Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO ?
- It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
- It’s bond order is 2.5
- It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
- It is a neutral oxide
3. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is :
4. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 K. The specific conductance of the solution is 1.4 S m 1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 K. The molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol—1 is :
5. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. If ‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following expressions is correct ?
- r + + r —= 3 a Cs Cl 2
- rCs+ + rCl—= 3a
- rCs+ + rCl—= 3a
- r + + r —= 3a Cs Cl 2
6. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M MgS(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and 0.125 M NaSPO4(aq) at 25°C. Whick statement is true about tkese solutions, assuming all salts to be strong electrolytes ?
- 0.125 M NaSPO4(aq) Has the higkest osmotic pressure.
- 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) has the higkest osmotic pressure.
- They all have the same osmotic pressure.
- 0.100 M MgS(PO4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
7. Which of the following reactions H2O2 acts as a reducing agent ?
(a) H2O2+ 2H++2e—→ 2H2O
(b) H2O2—2e—→ O2+ 2H+
(c) H2O2+2e—→ 2OH—
(d) H2O2+ 2OH——2e—→ O2+2H2O
- (a), (c)
- (b), (d)
- (a), (b)
- (c), (d)
8. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds : CHSCl, CHSCH2Cl, (CHS)2CHCl and (CHS)SCCl is :
- CHSCH2Cl > CHSCl > (CHS)2CHCl > (CHS)SCCl
- (CHS)2CHCl > CHSCH2Cl > CHSCl > (CHS)SCCl
- CHSCl > (CHS)2CHCl > CHSCH2Cl > (CHS)SCCl
- CHSCl > CHSCH2Cl > (CHS)2CHCl > (CHS)SCCl
9. The octahedral complex of a metal ion MS+ with four monodentate ligands L1, L2, LS and L4 absorb wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow and blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand strength of the four ligands is :
- LS < L2 < L4 < L1
- L1 < L2< L4 < LS
- L4 < LS < L2 < L1
- L1 < LS < L2 < L4
10. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic compound was digested by Hjeldahl method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of 10M sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 20 mL of M 10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is :
- 3 %
- 5 %
- 6 %
11. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C and at infinite dilution are hC and hœ, respectively. The correct relationship between hC and hœ is given as : (where the constant B is positive)
- hC=hœ—(B) C
- hC=hœ+(B) C
12. In the reaction, CH3COOH —L—iA—lH—4 ‹A —P—Cl—5‹B —A—lc.—KO—H—‹C , the product C is :
- Acetyl ckloride
13. On heating an aliphatic primary amine with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the organic compound formed is :
- an alkyl cyanide
- an alkyl isocyanide
- an alhanol ‘
- an alhanediol
14. The correct statement for the molecule, CsIS , is :
- it contains CsS+ and I— ions.
- it contains Cs+, I— and lattice I2 molecule.
- it is a covalent molecule.
- it contains Cs+ and I— ions.
15. The equation which is balanced and represents the correct product(s) is :
- ]Mg(H 2 O) 6 ] 2 + + (EDTA) 4 — —e—xce—ss—Na—OH—‹ ]Mg(EDTA)] 2 + + 6H2O
- CuSO 4 + 4KCN → K 2 ]Cu(CN) 4 ] +K2SO4
- Li2O+2KCl → 2LiCl+K2O ‘
- ]CoCl(NH S) 5 ] ++ 5H + → Co 2 +
16. For the non – stoichiometre reaction 2A+B → C+D, the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K. Initial Concentration
(A) Initial Concentration
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(B) Initial rate of formation of (mol L—S—) C 0.1 M 0.1 M 1.2 × 10—3 0.1 M 0.2 M 1.2 × 10—3 0.2 M 0.1 M 2.4 × 10—3 The rate law for the formation of C is :
- dc =k]A] ]B]2 dt
- dc =k]A] dt
- dc =k]A] ]B] dt
- dc =k]A]2 ]B]
17. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the smallest phb value ?
18. Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA ?
19. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z=37) is :
- 5, 1, 1, +
- 5, 0, 1, +
- 5, 0, 0, +
- 5, 1, 0, +
20. The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1— hrichloroethane with silver powder is :
- 2 – Butyne
- 2 – Butene
21. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of number of their molecule is:
- 1 : 8
- 3 : 16
- 1 : 4
- 7 : 32
22. Whick one is classified as a condensation polymer ?
23.Among the following oxoacids, the correct decreasing order of acid strength is :
- HClO4 > HClOS > HClO2 > HOCl
- HClO2 > HClO4 > HClOS > HOCl
- HOCl > HClO2 > HClOS > HClO4
- HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClOS
24. For complete combustion of ethanol, C2H5OH(l)+3O2(g) → 2CO2(g)+3H2O(l), the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol—1 at 25°C. Assuming ideality the Enthalpy of combustion, AcH, for the reaction will be : (R=8.314 kJ mol—1)
- —1460.50 kJ mol—1
- —1350.50 kJ mol—1
- —1366.95 kJ mol—1
- —1361.95 kJ mol—1
25. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of R—CH2—OH→ R—CHO is :
- PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate)
1. The molecular formula of a commercial resin used for exchanging ions in water softening is C8H7SOSNa (Mol. wt. 206). What would be the maximum uptake of Ca2+ ions by the resin when expressed in mole per gram resin ?
2. Sodium metal crystallixes in a body centred cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29Å. The radius of sodium atom is approximately :
3. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen ?
- +13.6 eV
- —6.8 eV
- —3.4 eV
- +6.8 eV
4. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the molecules is :
- ion – ion interaction
- ion – dipole interaction
- London force
- Hydrogen bond
5. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20°C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol—1) of the substance is :
6. Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is : (at. mass of Cu=63.5 amu)
- 0 g
- 63.5 g
- 2 g
- 127 g
7. Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to :
- low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species
- increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved
- shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions
- loss of active species on collision
8. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is :
- 18 mg
- 36 mg
- 42 mg
- 54 mg
9. The ionic radii (in Å) of NS—, O2— and F— are respectively :
- 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
- 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
- 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
- 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
10. In the context of the Hall – Heroult process for the extraction of Al, which of the following statements is false ?
- CO and CO2 are produced in this process
- Al2OS is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity
- AlS+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al
- NaSAlF6 serves as the electrolyte
11. From the following statements regarding H2O2, choose the incorrect statement :
- It can act only as an oxidizing agent
- It decomposes on exposure to light
- It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in dark
- It has to be kept away from dust
12. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy ?
13. Which among the following is the most reactive ?
14. Match the catalysts to the correct processes : Catalyst Process (A) TiClS (i) Wacker process (B) PdCl2 (ii) Ziegler – Natta polymerization (C) CuCl2 (iii) Contact process (D) V2O5 (iv) Deacon’s process
- (A) – (iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i)
- (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii)
- (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i)
- (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv)
15. Which one has the highest boiling point ?
16. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for square planar ]Pt (Cl) (py) (NHS) (NH2OH)]+ is (py = pyridine) :
17. The color of KMnO4 is due to :
- M → L ckarge transfer transition
- d — d transition
- L → M ckarge transfer transition
- o — o* transition
18. Assertion : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen. Reason : The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature.
- Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion
- Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion
- The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct
- Both the assertion and reason are incorrect 19.
19. 19 In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 250 mg of an organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the compound is : (at. mass Ag=108; Br=80)
20. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism ?
- 1 – Phenyl – 2 – butene
- 3 – Phenyl – 1 – butene
- 2 – Phenyl – 1 – butene
- 1, 1 – Diphenyl – 1 – propane
21. Thee synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by :
- Free radical fluorination
- Sandmeyer’s reaction
- Finkelstein reaction
- Swarts reaction
22. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints and lacquers ?
- Poly vinyl chloride
23. Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble ?
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin K
24. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid ?
- Aluminium hydroxide
25. Which of the following compounds is not colored yellow ?
- (NH4)S ]As (MoS O1O)4]
1.Which one of the following statements about water is FALSE ?
- There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the condensed phase.
- Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water.
- Water is oxidized to oxygen during photosynthesis.
- Water can act both as an acid and as a base.
2. In the Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number of moles of NaOH and Br2 used per mole of amine produced are :
- Two moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2 .
- Four moles of NaOH and one mole of Br2 .
- One mole of NaOH and one mole of Br2 .
- Four moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2 .
3. Which of the following atoms has the highest first ionization energy ?
4. The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and iron in a water sample from an underground lake was found to be 1000 ppb, 40 ppb, 100 ppm and 0.2 ppm, respectively. This water is unsuitable for drinking due to high concentration of :
6. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A+B ⇌ C+D is 100. If the initial concentration of all the four species were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L−1) will be : 1.818
7. The absolute configuration of CO2H H OH H Cl CH3 is :
- (2S, 3S)
- (2R, 3R)
- (2R, 3S)
- (2S, 3R)
8. For a linear plot of log (x/m) versus log p in a Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the following statements is correct ? (k and n are constants)
- Only 1/n appears as the slope.
- log (1/n) appears as the intercept.
- Both k and 1/n appear in the slope term.
- 1/n appears as the intercept.
9. The distillation technique most suited for separating glycerol from spent-lye in the soap industry is :
- Steam distillation
- Distillation under reduced pressure
- Simple distillation
- Fractional distillation
10. Which of the following is an anionic detergent ?
- Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
- Glyceryl oleate
- Sodium stearate
- Sodium lauryl sulphate
11.The species in which the N atom is in a state of sp hybridization is :
- NO+ 2
- NO− 2
12. Thiol group is present in :
13.Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth floatation method ?
14. Which of the following statements about low density polythene is FALSE ?
- Its synthesis requires oxygen or a peroxide initiator as a catalyst.
- It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dust-bins etc.
- Its synthesis requires high pressure.
- It is a poor conductor of electricity.
15. Which of the following compounds is metallic and ferromagnetic ?
16. At 300 K and 1 atm, 15 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon requires 375 mL air containing 20% O2 by volume for complete combustion. After combustion the gases occupy 330 mL. Assuming that the water formed is in liquid form and the volumes were measured at the same temperature and pressure, the formula of the hydrocarbon is :
17. The pair in which phosphorus atoms have a formal oxidation state of +3 is : Orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
- Pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids
- Orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids
- Pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
18. The reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl2+H2O) proceeds through the intermediate : CH3−CH(OH)−CH+ +
19. Which one of the following complexes shows optical isomerism ?
20. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in excess of air are, respectively :
- Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2
- Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2
- Li2O, Na2O and KO2
- LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O
21. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid, respectively, produces :
- NO and N2O
- NO2 and N2O
- N2O and NO2
- NO2 and NO
1. Among the following, correct statement is :
- Brownian movement is more pronounced for smaller particles than for bigger–particles.
- Sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic.
- Hardy Schulze law states that bigger the size of the ions, the greater is its coagulating power.
- One would expect charcoal to absorb chlorine more than hydrogen sulphide.
2. Excess of NaOH (aq) was added to 100mL of FeCl3 (aq) resulting into 2.14 g of Fe(OH). The molarity of FeCl3 (aq) is : (Given molar mass of Fe=56 g mol−1 and molar mass of Cl=35. 5 g mol−1) 0.2 M 0.3 M 0.6 M 1.8 M 3. Among the following, the incorrect statement is :
- At low pressure, real gases show ideal behaviour.
- At very low temperature, real gases show ideal behaviour.
- At very large volume, real gases show ideal behaviour.
- At Boyle’s temperature, real gases show ideal behaviour.
3. For a reaction, A(g) A(l); ∆H=−3RT.
The correct statement for the reaction is :
- |∆H| < |∆U|
- |∆H| > |∆U|
4. 5g of Na2SO4 was dissolved in x g of H2O. The change in freezing point was found to be 3.82°C. If Na2SO4 is 81.5% ionised, the value of x (Kf for water=1.86°C kg mol−1) is approximately : (molar mass of S=32 g mol−1 and that of Na=23 g mol−1)
- 15 g
- 25 g
- 45 g
- 65 g
5. Addition of sodium hydroxide solution to a weak acid (HA) results in a buffer of pH 6. If ionisation constant of HA is 10−5, the ratio of salt to acid concentration in the buffer solution will be :
- 4 : 5
- 1 : 10
- 10 : 1
- 5 : 4
6. The rate of a reaction A doubles on increasing the temperature from 300 to 310 K. By how much, the temperature of reaction B should be increased from 300 K so that rate doubles if activation energy of the reaction B is twice to that of reaction A.
- 9.84 K
- 4.92 K
- 2.45 K
- 19.67 K
7. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
- CO 2−
8. sp3d2 hybridization is not displayed by :
9. Identify the pollutant gases largely responsible for the discoloured and lustreless nature of marble of the Taj Mahal.
- O3 and CO2
- CO2 and NO2
- SO2 and NO2
- SO2 and O3
10. A metal ‘M’ reacts with nitrogen gas to afford ‘M3N’. ‘M3N’ on heating at high temperature gives back ‘M’ and on reaction with water produces a gas ‘B’. Gas ‘B’ reacts with aqueous solution of CuSO4 to form a deep blue compound. M and B respectively are:
- Li and NH3
- Ba and N2
- Na and NH3
- Al and N2
11. The number of S=O and S−OH bonds present in peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid respectively are :
- (2 and 2) and (2 and 2)
- (2 and 4) and (2 and 4)
- (4 and 2) and (2 and 4)
- (4 and 2) and (4 and 2)
12. A solution containing a group-IV cation gives a precipitate on passing H2S. A solution of this precipitate in dil.HCl produces a white precipitate with NaOH solution and bluish-white precipitate with basic potassium ferrocyanide. The cation is :
13. The reason for “drug induced poisoning” is :
- Binding reversibly at the active site of the enzyme
- Bringing conformational change in the binding site of enzyme
- Binding irreversibly to the active site of the enzyme
- Binding at the allosteric sites of the enzyme
14. Among the following, the essential amino acid is :
- Aspartic acid
15. Which of the following statements is not true about partition chromatography ?
- Mobile phase can be a gas
- Stationary phase is a finely divided solid adsorbent
- Separation depends upon equilibration of solute between a mobile and a stationary phase Paper chromatography is an example of partition chromatography
16. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :
- 1,1 -Dimethyl-2-ethylcyclohexane
- 2, 2-Dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexane
All the Very Best!!!!!!
By the help of JEE Main 2019 Mock test candidates will able to find out the exam pattern, difficulty level and more about the JEE Main 2019. JEE Main is the national level engineering entrance exam which is conducted by CBSE for various courses which is offered by the top institutions.
With many changes introduced for JEE Main 2019, NTA has taken the initiative to guide the students through the exam. JEE Main Syllabus remains the same, only the mode of examination has changed. NTA has launched mock tests on their official portal www.nta.ac.in. These are available in online as well as offline mode.
Mock tests are in the exact same pattern (CBT) as JEE Main exam, thereby preparing students for the main exam. Practicing mock tests boosts the confidence of students and eliminates the chance of silly mistakes. They are available free of cost on the website.
- Online Mock Tests– You need to visit the site, click on the ‘mock test’ option and login with your registered ID and password to practice the test online.
- Offline Mock Tests– You can download the mock test from the site and access it whenever you need to. It comes with full instructions, do’s and don’ts, for students to understand the pattern.
There are 2 ways of accessing the mock tests-
- From the top section on the Home Page as depicted in the above image.
‘Mock Test’ option is the online mode, while ‘Download Mock Test’ is the offline mode.
- Clicking the ‘Student’ section on the home page and then visiting the ‘Test Practice’ where mock tests are available in both online and offline mode. It is depicted in the below image.
Status for Each Questions in JEE Main Mock test:
|Button Colour||Status of the Button Pressed|
|Gray||You have not visited the question yet|
|Red||You have not answered the question|
|Green||You have answered the question|
|Purple||You have NOT answered the question, but have marked it for review|
|Purple with a green circle||You have answered the que|
How to answer:
- Candidates need to select one answer from the various choices given into the screen.
- If candidates wish to change/edit their answer, can click on other option.
- A candidates who want to lock the answer finally click on Save & Next Button.
- If candidates want to de-select the answer then they need to click over Clear Response button.
- If a candidate want to mark a question under review then they need to select Mark for review Section.
A candidates who want to attempt question according his preference then there is also an option into the header section of the question paper from where candidates can select the preferred section, that they want to attempt first
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A candidate who want to status of the each question then they need to select the section which they want to check the status.
A candidate can change anytime the question section from physics to mathematics, mathematics to chemistry, etc
Pros of Attempting of JEE Main Mock Test (Computer based Examination)
- Candidates can check the exam pattern in details.
- Can they are able to manage their timing? (Time Management)
- Candidates aware about the questions how they are difficult or intermediate level.
- Candidates also have a clear idea about the syllabus. Which are the important topics to be prepared for the JEE Main 2018?
General Instructions for JEE Main Mock test:
- Total duration of examination is 180 minutes.
- The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.
- The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:
- You have not visited the question yet.
- You have not answered the question.
- You have answered the question.
- You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review.
- You have answered the question, but marked it for review.
The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will be considered in the evaluation.